Herpes risk analysis

I have two related questions that I can't find answers to:

(1) Risk of cunnilingus. A doctor once told me that it is "very low risk" for an HSV1&2-negative person to get herpes by performing oral sex on a woman (and my recollection is that he said it's less risky than the inverse, a woman getting herpes from performing oral sex on a man, but I may be misremembering). I don't know if this is true, and if it is true, I don't know if it's because it's less common for the woman (or anyone) to have HSV1 genitally, and/or because it's less common for HSV2 to go from genitals to mouth, and/or because there's just something about cunnilingus that makes it low risk for herpes to transfer to the giver. And whatever the reason is, can we say what "very low risk" means by put a rough number on the chance of getting herpes this way?

(2) Individual variability in asymptomatic transfer. We know that herpes can transfer without symptoms being present, and that overall there's a certain percentage of time, on average, that an infected person is shedding asymptomatically. But I want to know if that varies a lot by individual. For instance, suppose a woman has been been infected from a young age with one virus or the other, or both. Suppose she has had many years of sexual activity, with, say, 50 partners, always being careful during outbreaks, but including lots of unprotected sex with longer-term partners when asymptomatic. And suppose nobody has ever gotten herpes from her, as far as she knows. Obviously we can't know for sure whether she gave someone herpes, but the question is: Could we conclude that this woman is *probably* lower risk to infect someone because she probably has less asymptomatic shedding than is typical?